Actually I came accost something earlier today that explains the hypo-mode better. I may have been mistaken on how to actually use them. I apologized but here’s the correct usage and it’s interesting. Take the hypo-phyrgian mode I wrote in my first post: B, C, D, E, F, G, A, B. At first look this is a B locrian mode, but what if your tune starting with B and ended on E. This was my mistake, instead of starting on A(the reciting tone) start on the root as natural. This produces a whole new cookie. Playing a mode but ending on the mode of a mode. hehe Here’s a simple way to see it. A good question is which two chords are an acceptable first chord of a song?? The root I and the dominant V. Now if you started on E with this scale, you end up with E phrygian. Start it on B or the dominant (V) of E and you end up with E hypophrygian. These two terms were used to describe the difference of a beginning tone, being either I (phyrgian) or V (hypophrygain). The resolution is the same in both cases, E. Again I apology for the misinterpretation hopefully I cleared it up.

If your wondering where the Hypo meaning works into this, E is a the IV chord if you started with B, or you could say B is a perfect forth below E. Either way and both ways make sense. Again sorry for the confusion.

Griphon-

Sorry, from your posts you seem to be since you explain everything in terms of pents. On your teaching, I agree you need input but one thing that you do. Don’t take this the wrong way, but you assume a lot. Like you said you must assume that 90 percent of the people on here know and may only know pents. You may find your response better taught if you take what the question is that’s being asked rather than what you assume. Like you did with this thread, your first post was so off base. -LOL- The first post on this page should have been you first response. You answered in the context of the discussion (which was hypo-modes), in the first one you didn’t mention hypo modes once instead something about playing the 6th of the major scale.

About the tri-tone and without turning this into a mass debate. I agree the tri-tone can exist within a dominant or leading tone chord. But that’s not the only chord. By definition a tri-tone is an augmented 4th or #4, a b5 is usually referred to as a diminished 5th because it exists within diminished triads. So tri-tone is not a completely accurate way to name that interval. What I was trying to tell you is the #4 or tri-tone also exists within the subdominant chord. Not only the leading tone and dominant chord. If you go back to that thread and read where that debate started, that was the first thing I tried to tell you.

[Edited by noticingthemistake on 08-05-2003 at 11:52 PM]