Originally Posted by: CSchlegelThis is all well and good but it does not show the most important information: the intervals that make the scale or mode sound the way it does and why it has a totally unique sound.

To be fair, this is implied, but only if you already know the theory. If you don't know the theory, then you are missing the most important part.

E Phrygian mode:
E (HS) F (WS) G (WS) A (WS) B (HS) C (WS) D (WS) E
1 (HS) flat2 (WS) min3 (WS) 4 (WS) 5 (HS) min6 (WS) min7 (WS) 1

No other mode (or scale) has that unique, exact pattern of intervals in between the scale degrees. That is why phrygian is phrygian and nothing else is phrygian.

Oh dear.. how easy it seems now. I have completely missed the point up until this explanation. I know exactly what Jolly was trying to get at now.. I'm so sorry Jolly.. I just couldn't understand it man.. but now I realise what you were saying. Of course it's the intervals.. how stupid am I.. bah! :o

I was correct but missing the point entirely. Thanks for making it clear Christopher.. I will still use my method to find Phrygian of course.. hehe.. old habits die hard.. but now I understand the modes MUCH better. Thankyou.