Originally Posted by: shapertakh
what confuses me is that arpeggios have chord notes and ive used all for a F#m and Emaj triad but not for the Dmaj (F# note is missing) is it ok like this too???
then i cant seem to know why can we use different octave notes on the fret when they dont sound the same unlike a keyboard???? hope you understood the question!!! im desperately waiting for a reply plz plz help!!!
First, yes theory comes after the music.
Although, some people run out of ideas/music within 3 days. So, theory can also be inspiration. It'l keep giving. And, knowledge is never a bad thing.
If you want some fundamentals on theory, come on over to my site and check the "Beginner to Advance Series"...http://lessons.mikedodge.com this is knowledge you "live" when it comes to music.
As far as all the notes on F#m and not Dmaj...how does F#m relate to Dmaj?
F#m is essentially a Dmaj7.
F#m = F# A C#
Dmaj7 = D F# A C#
So with just F#m you've basically covered a "voicing" for the Dmaj chord.
There are a number of ways to take lengthy progression and strip them down to just a couple of chords through substitutions. Sometimes you lose a little movement in the mix, but they are still seriously related, and not wrong.
I think you'd benefit from my site. Check it out, it's free, been playing seriously for 30 years, teaching for over 20 years. It's the right stuff to know.
http://lessons.mikedodge.com
http://www.mikedodge.com
http://www.mikedodge.com